GAME OF THRONES “RAPE” SCENE: Feminists are in a tizzy about the supposed rape of Game of Thrones character Sansa Stark. There’s a defense of the storyline and character development by Leslie Loftis in The Federalist today. But even Loftis assumes that the scene involved a rape. I’m a fan of the show, and I saw the scene. But I honestly don’t understand why everyone is assuming this was a “rape.”
During the episode, Sansa was married to character Ramsey Bolton (a creepy, sadistic character, for sure). Immediately after their wedding, Ramsey asks Sansa to undress. She complies, and then one hears her crying, presumably as Ramsey is raping her. But the two are married, and Sansa never once indicates, overtly or even implicitly, that she objects to having sex with him. So if she does not object in any way, would not her husband reasonably assume she consented? If one wanted to shoot a “rape” scene, should not the script writer have at least provided some indication that Sansa articulated a “no”?
I understand that Ramsey is an icky character, that he asked his slave to watch them have sex, and that he would not have taken a “no,” even it if had been uttered or indicated by physical resistance (in which case continuation would clearly have been a rape). But given that the scene offers no manifestation of objection by Sansa, is it even fair to characterize this scene as a “rape”?