“There was no North or South when slavery was begun, and North when it existed matured to reject it. The Southern traitors had to be shot and burned out until they gave their “peculiar institution”, and they chose that by their crimes.”
Propaganda. The North/South divide was created by England when they assigned spheres of influence when colonizing America.
Obviously, you have no desire to trade your dogma for facts;

http://geography.about.com/od/politicalgeography/a/masondixon.htm

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“In 1632, King Charles I of England gave the first Lord Baltimore, George Calvert, the colony of Maryland. Fifty years later, in 1682, King Charles II gave William Penn the territory to the north, which later became Pennsylvania. A year later, Charles II gave Penn land on the Delmarva Peninsula (the peninsula that includes the eastern portion of modern Maryland and all of Delaware).”

The divide between North and South was the Mason-Dixon line. Established in 1750 by an English court of law.
1750 comes before 1860, BTW.
AFAIK, the English used ‘north’ and ‘south’ America in their correspondence during the Revolutionary war.
Sir, you need to read some of the period literature. Then compare it to modern “History” (yes, sneer quotes). Almost everything you learned in school is propaganda. Propaganda eventually falls apart.
The north was industrialized, which makes classical slaves useless. In order to profit from a slave, you have to make him a wage slave (Proletariat). Once educated enough to work machinery, a classic slave no longer has to stay a slave. He has a choice. Because he has a skill to sell.
Read your Marx.
IN 1860 SLAVERY WAS NOT A CRIME. It was immoral, but morality is between you and your god. It is not a subject for the laws of man. Only religious fanatics think it is. And only their version of morality counts.

Whoopsie! I thought Typos was gone.
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