Jousting with the Lancet: Pajamas Media Interviews Professor Gilbert Burnham
Do you really think that an aging poulation is a sign of a high mortality rate, as Burnham would have us believe? Or, are you just being argumentative?
I would have thought it was self-evident. Apparently not.
It isn’t. And an aging population doesn’t seem to me to be a sign of a high mortality rate either. It seems to me a sign of a high mortality rate is a low life expectancy.
Nevertheless, I see the point about how a country with a high life expectancy could have a higher mortality rate than a country with a lower life expectancy.
It partly has to do with the probability of death being 1. And it partly has to do with the country mortality rate being a sort of a weighted average composed of the sums of total pop of a particular age and mortality rate of that particular age.
Suppose there are two countries, A – 75% of the population age 25 and 25% age 75; and B – 25% of the population age 25 and 75% age 75. Suppose the mortality rates for 25 year olds are A – 10%, B -5%, and for 75 year olds A – 80% and B – 50%. Total population of each is 1 million.
Obviously, the life expectancy and average age of B is much greater than A, and at either specific age the rate at which A’s die is much higher than the rate at which the B’s die.
Yet, in absolute numbers:
75,000 A 25′s, and 200,000 A 75′s die in any one year.
14,000 B 25′s, and 375,000 B 75′s die in any one year.
So the mortality rate of the country A is 275 per thousand, while the mortality rate of the country B is higher, 375 per thousand.
What the higher mortality rates at any specific age mean, is that the life expectancy of A is lower, and, that final, absolute probability of death = 1 is reached sooner in A.
It’s almost counterintuitive.





