If – if – Obama lost those contests because of “racism,” then he’s certainly won many more states than he’s lost because of that “racism.”
Why is it that 70% of whites can vote for Clinton and 90% of blacks can vote for Obama in a state, and the result is considered evidence of racism…harbored by white people?
White people are a far more normative group. Black activists and academics are always whining about how “whiteness is normative” and how white America is what’s considered “normal.” Don’t you think the group that’s considered “normal” is a hell of a lot more likely to pick a candidate on the merits (rather than race) than the group that defines itself as an oppressed ‘other’?
Not that I buy into the normativity argument (which is basically an elaborate rationalization for affirmative action), but it just goes to show that these charges of racism don’t stand up, even if we play the game entirely on the whiners’ intellectual terms.
