Odysseus
2009-09-02 07:59:44
BC, the Hippocratic oath doesn’t say a word about payment or lack of payment for treatment. It isn’t a priestly oath of poverty. It doesn’t even require that a physician administer treatment; the nearest it comes to that is in this sentence: “I will apply dietic measures for the benefit of the sick according to my ability and judgment; I will keep them from harm and injustice.” and that arguably, in the context, is an instruction as to how to administer treatment not when to administer treatment.
As I asked in #160, from whence does this presumed right come?
