Curly Smith
2008-02-19 15:55:53
Oh my, now I’m confused. Facts are facts and parts of the southwestern US used to belong to Mexico. But, Mexico used to belong to France, and before that, Spain. So do Spain and France have preferential rights to immigrate? Or, am I supposed to freeze history at some convenient point? Does that freeze come before or after we booted the British? Does Russia now have claims on Alaska? I’d point out that the parts of the southwestern US that used to belong to Mexico were ceded to the US at the close of the Mexican-American War but that’s probably not “convenient” history.
