The aim is not to abolish the IRS. The aim is to abolish the federal income tax. In the process, the IRS gets abolished.
Secondly, with regard to pretty much the entirety of the rest of your posting, WE ALREADY USE SALES TAXES AT THE STATE LEVEL. You are attempting to convince us that something that already works won’t work.
Thirdly, the federal income tax not only has its own evaders, but it also has a much bigger group of avoiders. Tax avoidance, of course, is what fuels much of the tax accounting industry in America and allows the federal government to play games with who pays what and who gets what — vote buying and political favors to big business supporters.
Thirdly, the FairTax is not a VAT, will not be a VAT, and should not be a VAT. A VAT embeds taxes. No thanks, Europe.
Finally, the title of your post does not relate to its content. The FairTax does not originate with Huckabee. It is one part of his platform. Also, your article seems to be driven by the desire to associate the FairTax with the acronmym VAT as many times as possible, which is deceptive, and to assert that the FairTax is a VAT, which is absolutely false. What does this have to do with fairness of the FairTax, which is the question posed in the title? One might say that the FairTax is so-named because it applies federal taxation to a broader base. How does your post address this issue or any other one that might relate to the “fairness” of a tax system?
We don’t need a VAT and we certainly don’t need the federal income tax system. The income tax was made constitutional by amendment. Our (I’m sorry, I should say ‘my’) forefathers did not intend for an income tax system to exist in the first place. Once again, I remind you that we already have retail sales taxes (NOT VATs) at the state level and they work just fine.
