A Comment About

A Flight to Nowhere

July 23, 2007 - 12:00 am - by Omar Fadhil
Andrew Brehm
2007-07-26 01:54:24

“Yes, let’s consider Israel, the

And while we are at it, “Informer”:

It is NOT my fault that Jordan was carved out of Palestine. So please don’t act as if it somehow inappropriate for me to mention that fact.

number one recipient of US aid, despite its place as a first world nation.”

Israel was a success story before it received US aid. And can you tell me how much of the aid goes to non-military projects?

The fact is that Israel is doing much better than the Arab countries, despite absorption of refugees and despite the fact that it has to spent an extraordinary amount on defence in order to prevent another holocaust.

And Arab Israelis, can you tell me which rights they do not have? The “argument” that Israeli Arabs are not full citizens is often used, but I have never seen anybody back it up with facts. Which particular law discriminates against them?

As for the Bedouins in Jordan, here is what I said about them:

“[...] unless you are referring to Jordan’s Bedouin population (like those that migrated from the Mecca region)”

Can you tell me exactly what is “condescending” about that?

And then I am curious about the definition of “Palestinian”. You seem to have a very clear picture of who is “Palestinian” and who isn’t.

“Palestine” was, ever since the Romans named the region such and certainly under British rule, what is now Israel (except Golan), Gaza, Judaea and Samara (or the West-Bank, if you will), and Jordan (or Transjordan).

I understand that a “Palestinian” is not simply an inhabitant of that region. So presumably a “Palestinian” is a “non-Jewish inhabitant of specific parts of Palestine”?

I know that the argument about the “Palestinian people” not existing before the 1960s is old, but I have yet to see anybody react by showing evidence for a discrete Palestinian culture in the past rather than call Zionist propaganda attempt.

For me “Palestine” is a region named by the Romans (which was formerly known variedly as “Israel” and “Judaea”) and a “Palestinian” is an inhabitant of that region, regardless of ethnicity or religion. Is that not good enough?

If you have a different definition of “Palestine”, then please show evidence that that definition was ever valid in the past.

And if you have a different definition of “Palestinian”, then please make a case for why certain inhabitants of Palestine would be excluded (and why the occasional Egyptian would be included).